• What conditions can be prevented or lessened by gonadectomy?

    Females:  pyometra, ovarian tumors, uterine tumors, mammary tumors, urinary incontinence


    Males: Testicular tumors, prosthetic hyperplasia, perineal adenoma, perennial hernias

  • What drug used to prevent unwanted pregnancy, but can predispose to pyometra even in young bitches?

    Estradiol

    Megasterol (ovaban)

  • What is the relationship between Early Gonadectomy and joint disease especially enlarged breed dogs?

    More joint disease is seen in dogs neutered young.  Even more so with males.

  • What is the effect of gonadectomy on behavior?

    Less aggression especially “mate finding” aggression.  But the effect on other forms of aggression is probably negligible and overrated

          

    Less roaming behavior in males

  • Should gabapentin be used aas the sole agent for pain?

    No

  • How is gabapentin removed from the body?

    KIdneys

  • What is the best way to administer gabapentin to dogs and cats when used as pre-clinic sedation?

    .Give a dose the night before the appointment  


    Dogs/cats: 20 to 25 mg/kg PO the evening before the appointment and 20 to 25 mg/kg PO at least 1 to 2 hours before the appointment

  • What is venlafaxine?

    serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

  • What conditions is venlafaxine used to treat in cats?

    high arousal conditions, impulsive aggression

  • What is the main adverse effect of venlafaxine in cats?

    decreased energy

  • Why might venlafaxine be prefered over fluoxetine or clomipramine for cats with idiopathic cystitis or constipation?

    Less anticholinergic effects.  Will not make urinary retention or constipation worse.

  • Is protection from disease guaranteed with vaccination?

    No

  • Should shelter dogs with mild disease, be vaccinated

    2022 AAHA canine vaccination guidelines state shelter dog with mild illness may be vaccinated

  • Name a condition that can be life-threatening and can be triggered by vaccination. Note that "can be.” is not the same as "will be”

    immune mediated polyradiculitis 

  • What is another name for immune mediated polyradiculiytis?

    Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) or coon hound paralysis

  • Should cats with FELV or FIV be vaccinated?

    Yes if otherwise healthy

    No if cat is clinically sick

  • Should sick cats with FIP be vaccinated?

    No

  •  Can dogs that are on ilunocitinib (zenrelia) be vaccinated?

    No according to the manufacturer.

  • What kind of vaccine is best to use on animals on chemo?

    killed vaccine.  But still best to take precautions

  • Should pets on. anti inflammatory doses of glucocorticoids or topical steroids be vaccinated?

    In most cases yes.

    Maybe not when auto immune doses used

  • What diseases have titres available to indicate protection?

    panleukopenia, parvovirus, canine distemper, adenovirus

  • Can pregnant animals be vaccinated?

    Best to avoid

  • Name five causes of epistasis in dogs.

    Trauma

    neoplasia

    infection (tooth root abscess)

       fungal

       bacterial

    coagulopathy

    Parasitic

    Foreign body   

  • What is the goal standard radiologic imaging technique for nasal problems?

    CT scan

  • What should a clinician do first, nasal radiography or rhinoscopy? Why?

    Do radiography first.  The process of doing rhinoscopy can cause bleeding or temporary changes in the nasal cavity which would impact radiographic appearance

  • What drug that many clinicians have can be used to control epistasis? Give me a topical drug and a systemic drug?

    Topical:  epinephrine, phenylephrine


    systemic:  blood transfusion therapy, desmopressin

  • What technique is described in the article, "epistasis in dogs” can a clinician do to control epistasis? (note that I have never done the technique described)

    improvised nasopharyngeal tamponade device (ie, condom affixed to a nasogastric tube)

  • What is the name of the product described in the article about promoting water intake in cats?

    Hydra Care by Purina

  • What is a real life concern about clients giving subcutaneous fluids to cats at home (not mentioned an article)?

    You will create a behavioral problem. The cat will start running away from you when you approach him or her.

  • What is the saying that promotes PO feeding and drinking?

    If the gut works - USE it.

  • How much water should a cat consume a day?

    50 to 60 ml/kg (cat)

  • How concentrated can cats make their urine and why do you suppose cats evolved this way?

    SG up 1.080


    Cats evolved in an arid desert environment (Egypt)

  • What are some "tricks" to get a cat or dog to consume more water?

    Add water to food.  Make dry food "cereal".  Make wet food "soup"

    water bowl more accessible (every floor), outside

    water fountain

    flavored ice or ice gruel

  • Is the urethral muscle relaxant prazosin good or bad according to the article? Why?

    Bad.  It does not prevent recurrence, it stresses the cat, it adds cost.  Note this conclusion is for recurrence, not for unblocking a cat that comes in obstructed

  • What kind of pharmacologic agent is prazocin classified as?

    Alpha 1 adronergic anatgonist


    NAVLE pearl:

    α₁ stimulation = vasoconstriction + urinary tract contraction

    α₁ blockade = vasodilation + urinary tract relaxation.

  • What are adverse effects of prazosin?

     Hypotension, lethargy, GI upset, ptyalism

  • How would you use prazosin in a blocked cat?

    Give 0.25 mg to 1 mg PO.  Give 10 to 30 minutes before attempting to unblock cat.  It is unlikely that prazosin will unblock I can't buy itself. But the goal is to relax the urethra to make catheterization easier

  • What is another alpha adrenonergic antagonist?

    Phenoxybenzamine

    I actually found this better than prazosin even though more people use prazosin.

  • Is topical corticosteroids good or bad to control of otitis external in dogs?

    They are good.  They help a lot.  

  • Ask Dr. Dave about his homemade Paumanok ear formula

    Take a 4 ounce container of Oticlenz or equivalent ear cleanser.  Remove 20 cc. Add 10 cc dexamethasone injectable.  Add 10 cc of Betadine solution. Applied to ears 2 to 4 times per week. Maybe three drops each t

    ime.

  • What are other things a clinician can do to prevent otitis external from returning?

    ear cleaning

    omega 3 fatty acids

    hyposensitization - good in theory but not as easy as it sounds

    hypo allergenic diet (sometimes)

  • What is the "Otitis Index score"?

    A standardized clinical scoring system used to quantify the severity of inflammation in the external ear canal and to objectively follow response to treatment.



  • What is the most common underlying cause for otitis external in dogs?

    Allergy by far.


    A dog with hyperemic ear canals that are pruritic is almost always allergy or topical drug adverse effect. If it gets secondarily infected either with yeast or bacteria – this is when you get an exudate.

  • What is “marsupialization”?

    Surgically opening up a fluid filled sack (cyst, abscess, pyometra) and suturing it to the skin, such that the fluid grains to the outside and not inside the animal. With this procedure, the fluid fill structure is not removed.

  • What is the problem with marsupialization to treat sialoceles?

    High rate of recurrence

  • What is sialoadenectomy?

    Removal of salivary gland.

  • How can a ranula or sialocele be really bad? even fatal?

    These are benign processes.  Nevertheless it can potentially obstruct the airway or cause aspiration, pneumonia with saliva, which can be a much more serious situation.

  • What is a big advantage of insulin Glargine 300?

    Very good control with once a day injection

  • What is "Flash glucose monitoring"?

    Continuous glucose monitoring (CGM) that measures glucose in the interstitial fluid under the skin using a small sensor.

  • What is a disadvantage of glargine 300 (not mentioned in the article)

    Expensive

  • Should Glorgine 300 be administered with meals?

    Not necessary

  • In the article, what percentage of dogs were controlled with once daily GU 300 insulin injection?

    59%

  • What are some contraindications to induce emesis in felines?

    caustic or corrosive agents eg, bleach, chemicals), 

    high risk for aspiration pneumonia (eg, altered mentation, laryngeal paralysis, absent gag reflex), 

    protracted vomiting after toxin ingestion, 

    respiratory distress, 

    ingestion of a nontoxic or very low toxicity substance or dose, 

    severe acid−base   

  • What is the name of the neuro anatomic site in the medulla oblongata that initiates vomiting?

    Chemo receptor trigger zone (CRTZ)

  • What is the emetic agent of choice for cats?

    Dexmedetomidine

  • What is the eye drop that is an emetic in cats? Note - I have not used this and it is off label

    Brimonidine

  • What part of the CNS has afferent influence on the emetic center?

    Vestibular

  • What do cats have in the CRTZ that dogs don't that impacts emesis?

    alpha-2–adrenergic receptors 

  • Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist can cause excessive sedation. How can this be reversed?

    atipamezole.

  • What agents that were used as emetics in the past are now considered wrong? And why?

    Salt

    Risk for hypernatremia and sodium toxicosis49


    Syrup of ipecac 

    Risk for cardiotoxicosis49


    Sodium carbonate or other irritants 

    Potential for severe mucosal injury and lower efficacy50,51



  • What are the most effective emetics for dogs

    Apomorphine


    Ropinirole (clevor)

  • Can apomorphine and rropinirole be used together?

    Yes

  • What are expected side effects of ropinirole and apomorphine?

    Tachycardia

    muscle tremors


  • Why might apomorphine reduce absorption of ropinirole eye drops?

    Alpha-adrenergic agonist effects of apomorphine on the conjunctival epithelium..

  • What pathological condition of the kidneys has the shortest medium survival time (MST)?

    Amyloidosis

  • What is Podocytopathy?

    Glomerular disease that results in protein loss - foot processes. Leaky filtration system.

  • What clinical pathology values are best to monitor kidney disease progression?

    BUN, creatinine, BP, UPCR

  • What physical examination findings are best to monitor kidney disease progression? (Not in article)

    Weight, appetite, breath odor, hydration, coat quality

  • What is the gold standard test for septic effusion?

    Aerobic and anaerobic culture

  • What is the problem with this test?

    Takes a long time to get results.

  • What is the difference between morbidity and mortality?

    Morbiidity is the number or percentage of animals that are sick or have a condition as opposed to mortality - the number of animals that die from this condition

  • Describe the bioluminescence test?

    Light has different physical properties when passed through fluid that has cells or bacteria in it versus clean fluid.  This difference is largely consistent and can be used to diagnose bacterial infections as a point of care (POC) service.

  • What unit is used to measure bioluminescence of bacterial ATP

    Relative light units (RLUs).

  • Which organ is affected by focal myasthenia gravis (MG)?

    Esophagus

  • Is MG painful?

    No

  • What is the hallmark clinical sign of myasthenia gravis?

    Weakness

  • What is the basis of “bunny hopping”?

    The dog has more strength, pushing off with two legs than with just one leg..

  • What is the diagnostic test of choice for myasthenia gravis?

    Anti-Colinesterase  receptor antibody (AChR)

  • What class of drugs is used to treat myasthenia gravis and given an example?

    Anticholinesterase drugs

  • T/F: clinical signs of MG are typically equal right and left, but there can be disparity between caudal (pelvic) and cranial )thoracic).

    True - typically pelvic them weakness is worse than thoracic

  • What percentage of food allergic dogs respond within three weeks?

    70%

  • What are some home management techniques to deal with anal sacculitis and impacted anal glands?

    Add fiber to diet

    Soak animals, butt and lukewarm water as needed up to once a day (fill the bathtub up with lukewarm water and sit the dog)

    Keep parental hair clipped short

    Omega-3 fatty acid

  • The author of this article called the dog's temperature of 102.5 F a slight temperature. Do you agree?

    My opinion- I would not worry about a temperature of 102.5 unless it has been measured in the past and as consistently been lower. Temperatures tend to rise a little bit and excited dogs, which is what you would expect in a hospital situation. Also, there is inflammation in the perianal area and this will locally increase temperature.

  • How can you tell the difference between a vaginal prolapse and a uterine prolapse?

    By Digitail palpation, you can feel the cervix with uterine prolapse. With vaginal prolapse, this is not possible.

  • How can you shrink swollen prolapsed tissue?

    Hyperosmotic topical solutions:  50% dextrose, hypertonic saline.

  • What is the treatment of choice for Perianal fistula?

    Cyclosprines

  • Why is ketoconazole sometimes added to the treatment regimen?

    By its effect on the mitochondrial metabolism.  Basically it slows the removal of cyclosporine such that you can get an equivalent response by using half the amount of cyclosporine. It’s a cost saving measure.

  • What can be done to decrease the occurrence of gastrointestinal upset due to cyclosporine?

    Put the cyclosporine capsules in the freezer.  Cold cyclosporine does not irritate the stomach

  • What are other treatment options?

    Prednisone

    Oclacitinib

    Tacrolimus topical

    Azathioprine

    UV light

    Stem cell therapy (future possibility)


  • Are antibiotics recommended for perianal fistula? How about metronidazole?

    Antibiotics are generally not recommended. Metronidazole usually is avoided too, but if it is used, it is for its immune moderating effect.

  • What dog breed is most associated with perianal fistula?

    German Shepherd

  • What is PO1?

    A brucellosis specific antigen used for diagnostic purposes

  • Is brucellosis more common in young dogs or old dogs?

    Young dogs, especially males that roam.

  • What condition is typically associated with brucellosis? Think radiographic diagnosis.

    Discospndylitis

  • Is brucellosis easy to cure?

    No hard to cure.  And has potential zoonotic potential.

  • Why is apoquel (oclacitinib) contraindicated in dogs <1 yr?

    oclacitinib is contraindicated in dogs <1 year of age because of the risk for systemic infections in puppies with immature immune systems

  • Are beta lactam antibiotics good for neonatal dogs

    Yes

  • If one chooses to use opioids in neonatal puppies, how should the dosage be adjusted if at all?

    The dose should be reduced by 50% for premedication and 30% for analgesia.

  • What is the problem of using fluroquinilones and puppies and kittens?

    Joint problems

  • What is the problem of using tetracycline in puppies? Does this concern carryover to doxycycline?

    Staining dental enamel

    Doxycycline is more lipid soluble, and as a result is less likely to stay enamel


  • Explain how the statum corneum plays a role in canine atopic dermatitis

    In dogs with CAD, structural and immunologic abnormalities weaken this barrier, allowing increased allergen penetration and promoting the chronic inflammation and pruritus that characterize CAD


  • Can nutrition be used to treat or control canine atopic dermatitis? If so, how does this work?

    Several nutrients contribute to maintaining the integrity and function of the skin barrier. Foods enriched with fatty acids (eg, linoleic acid, eicosapentaenoic acid, docosahexaenoic acid) and antioxidants (eg, zinc, vitamins C and E) may help support skin health and modulate inflammatory pathways.

  • How can therapeutic bathing help a dog with a topic dermatitis (not fully explained in the article)?

    Washes away allergens

    Strengthens the epidermal barrier - fatty acids, oatmeal, and/or ceramides


  • What factor that impacts clinical signs in atopic dogs can not be controlled? (not fully explained in article.)

    Antigen exposure, e.g. pollen count

  • Topical therapy is not important to treat canine atopic dermatitis. True or false.

    False

  • Name five indications for doing an ECG

    • Tachycardia or bradycardia detection during physical examination


    • Syncope or collapse


    • Confirmed cardiomyopathy on echocardiography or when suspected based on thoracic radiographs or cardiac biomarkers


    • Monitoring during sedation or anesthesia, as well as perioperative monitoring


    • Monitoring of patients involved in trauma or exposed to toxicity


    • Systemic illness requiring hospitalization

    • Electrolyte abnormalities

    • Pericardiocentesis

    • Drug monitoring, including antiarrhythmic therapy, for effect or adverse effects

    • Calculation of a mean heart rate in atrial fibrillation



  • What is p pulmonale and what does it indicate?

    Tall p waves indicate rt atrial enlargement


  • With canine sinus arrythmia, is the heart rate faster with inspiration or expiration? Why?

    Faster with inspiration – vagus which slows the heart rate nerve is inhibited


  • Wide and bizarre QRS complexes are associated with supraventricular lesion or ventricular lesion?

    Ventricular

  • What does AGASACA stand for?

    Apocrine gland anal sac adenocarcinoma


  • Where is the most common anatomical site for anal gland carcinoma to metastasize two?

    Sub lumbar lymph nodes

  • Should rectal examination be part of every annual canine physical examination or at least in dogs over 15 pounds?

    Yes – amongst many reasons, anal gland tumors will be detected sooner


  • Why is it better to remove anal sack, tumors sooner than later?

    Less opportunity to metastasize, easier surgery with less complications, better results


  • What is the treatment of choice for anal sac tumors?

    Surgery

  • What is the common name for fly larvae?

    Maggot

  • Can screw worm (Cochliomyia hominivorax) flies lay eggs in health tissue?

    Yes

  • Can humans get screw worm (Cochliomyia hominivorax)?

    Yes

  • Screw worms live predominantly in warmer states. Under what circumstances might they be encountered in cold states?

    Rescue + transportation.

  • What is the best source for information about small animal parasite?
  • Where do you send suspect samples of new world screw worm? (not in article)
  • Are Isoxazolines (ie, afoxolaner, sarolaner, lotilaner) effective against new world screw worms?

    Yes

  • Describe sterile insect technique to control NWS.

    Male screw worms are raised and irradiated.  This makes them sterile.  They are released into affected areas and mate with females.  But result in no offspring.


  • Why does this work in southern United States but not South América

    South America is too extensive, and terrain is too big and diverse


  • What is "diascopy"?

    Diascopy involves applying pressure to the skin, often with a microscope slide, to determine whether the skin blanches (ie, turns white; positive diascopy) or remains red (negative diascopy).

  • What is negative diascopy and what does it mean?

    Skin remains red when pressed with a glass slide > RBC outside of blood vessels

  • What adverse effects can happen?

    GI erosions and ulcers.

  • What category of disease is negative diascopy associated with?

    Immune mediated disease

  • What are ketorolac and diclofenac?

    topical ophthalmic NSAIDs

  • What drug is better, ketorolac and diclofenac?

    topical ophthalmic NSAIDs

  • What adverse effects can happen?

    GI erosions and ulcers.

  • What common long lasting ear medicine contains both terbinafine and florfenicol

    Claro

  • The author describes neurogenic keratoconjunctivitis sicca (nKCS)

    No.  But it can take over two months to resolve.

  • What can be done to lessen the chance of this happening?

    Examen the tympanic membrane (not always so easy)

  • What are ketorolac and diclofenac?

    topical ophthalmic NSAIDs

  • What drug is better, ketorolac and diclofenac?

    topical ophthalmic NSAIDs

  • What adverse effects can happen?

    GI erosions and ulcers.

  • Take the online quiz

    This was very difficult. I got one out of five my first go round. The good news is that everyone learns more from the mistakes they made then from getting the answer right.


    You will have a better chance of getting questions right if you review solensia

  • What to do in a clinically healthy dog with <2x upper limit of reference value

    Wait 3 to 4 weeks and recheck ALT so long as dog rremains clinically normal

  • What to do: Healthy patients with ALT ≥4 times the limit of the reference interval for >12 weeks

    Abdominal ultrasound

  • What metal element can silently cause a lot of liver problems

    Copper

  • In what circumstances would one do a more comprehensive work up

    Dog is clinically sick

    other clin path abnormalities

    abnormal bile acid

    Breeds with familial liver issues

  • What are the two broad categories of anemia?

    regenerative

    nonregenerative

  • What length of time (number of days) is the cut off point to indicate regenerative vs nonregenerative anemia?

    5 days

  • What are the five major causes of non-regenerative anemia?  How many can you name without looking back at the article?

    Anemia of inflammation

    Anemia of Chronic Kidney Disease

    Hormone-Associated Anemia

    Immune-Mediated Nonregenerative Anemia


  • What protein transfers iron out of macrophages?

    ferroportin

  • What causes non-regenerative anemia in kidney patients?

    Decreased EPO

    Uremic toxins increase RBD fargility

    Bleeding intestinal erosions and ulcers

    Decreased appetitie

    Myelophthisic Anemia (Space-Occupying Lesions)

  • What endocrinopathies are most associated with non-regenerative anemia?

    Hypothyroidism

    Hypoadrenocorticism

  • What is the distinguishing feature of immune mediated non-regenerative anemia?

    The immune directed activity is directed at RBC precursors at some point before they are released into circulation

  • What  procedure is absolutely necessary to diagnose bone marrow space occupying anemia?

    Bone marrow aspirate with cytology and bone marrow biopsy.

  • What is the minimal length of time to put a dog on that has Furunculosis?

    40 days

  • What length of time (number of days) is the cut off point to indicate regenerative vs nonregenerative anemia?

    5 days

  • Why was the patient described not treated with topical shampoo?

    Painful


  • Why and how can this condition be easily missed in many dogs

    Thick coat hides lesions which can be surprizing big.

  • What diagnostic procedure is quick and can help choose initial antibiotic until Colle sensitivity results are in?

    Cytology

    Rods > start with fluroquinilones

    cocci > stsrt with cephalexin or clindamycine

  • What information should be included when you send off a cytology specimen to a clinical pathologist?

    signalment

    clinical history

    medication history

    full description of the sampled lesion or mass eg, size, location, duration, shape, texture, appearance.

    Attach a picture

  • What is a phrase used to describe Blastomyces dermatitidis ? (not directly mentioned in article)

    Big Blue Balls

  • What does Mycoplasma haemofelis look like on a blood smear of an infected cat?

    Blue dots on surface of RBC's (easy to miss)


  • What is the best test for Mycoplasma haemofelis?

    PCR.

  • What is the shape of Sporothrix schenckii?

    Cigar shaped

  • What is the classic feature of Cryptococcus neoformans on cytology?

    Large cells with thick clear capsule

  • Describe the cytologic appearance of Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

    Morulae (clusters of small bacteria) inside of neutrophils)

  • Is Anaplasma usually clinical?

    No

  • Histoplasma capsulatum

    oval-shaped yeast structures with a thin, clear halo and a basophilic, eccentrically placed nucleus in neutrophils and monocytes

  • Describe Leishmania infantum

    Frequent small (2-5 µm), round-to-ovoid structures with basophilic nuclei and small rod-shaped kinetoplasts were noted extracellularly and within macrophages

  • Is Leishmania endemic in the USA?

    No - 

    Always take travel history.

  • What kind of blood cells do you canine distemper virus (CDV) inclusion bodies occur in?

    RBC's

    neutrophils

    Monocytess.

  • What are the two syndromes of zinc responsive of dermatitis? (ZRD)? And describe them.

    Syndrome 1 - artic breeds (Huskies, Malamutes).  genetic defect in Zn absorption


    Syndrome 2 - dietary deficiency or "obstruction" to absorption - phytates

  • What is the best zinc supplement to use?

    Zinc methionine

  • What is histopathologic lesion is classic for ZRD?

    epidermal parakeratotic hyperkeratosis


  • What are the four types of wounds

    clean

    clean-contaminated

    contaminated

    dirty

  • What are the three phases of wound healing and what is their timeframe?

    Inflammatory Phase (Days 0-4)

    Proliferative Phase (Days 4-12)

    Maturation/Remodeling Phase (up to 12-18 months)

  • Is moisture good for wound healing?  Why?

    Yes

    foster autolysis of damaged tissue

    aid leukocyte migration

    encourage local preservation of cytokines and growth factors

    enable contact of systemically administered antibiotics with the wound bed

    encourage epithelialization

    decrease scar production

    decrease pruritus and pain.

  • What is the best way to get a sample for culture and sensitivity?

    Tissue sample, e.g. punch biopsy - better then surface swab

  • What is the first step in wound management? (not mentioned in article.)

    Anallgesia +/- sedation

  • How do wound dressings remove necrotic tissue from a wound?

    As the covering layer dries, necrotic tissue stick to it and are removed when the dressing is changed.

  • Describe the tie over technique for managing wounds?

    Suture loops are made aound the wound edge

    Umbilical tape is uswed in zig zag fasten to hold primary dressing in place

  • Initially, how often should the bandage be changed?

    Atleast once a day

  • What is a unique and dangerous feature of New World screwworm (NWS)?

    They can attack and lay eggs in healthy tissue

  • Can New World screwworms thrive  in cold conditions??

    No.  45 degrees F is the cutoff point

  • What are the clinical signs of NWS?

    Soft tissue destruction made woorse by secondary bacterial infection

  • How is New world screwworm diagnosed?

    identify the larvae (maggot)

  • How is new world screwworm treated?

    Physical removal of larvae

    wound care

    antiparasitic administration

  • Name some anti parasiticides that are effective against NWS.

    lotilaner (credelio)

    moxidectin (proheart)

    praziquantel (droncit)

    pyrantel (strongid)

    afoxolaner (Nexgard)

    sarolaner (simparica)

    Nitenpyram (capstar)

    Spinosad (comfortis)

    ivermectin (Ivomec)

  • What is sterile fly release?

    Adult flies only mate once. Female flies that mate with a sterile male lay nonfertile eggs. Millions of sterile males can be produced through irradiation and released in areas where NWS is endemic or at risk for emergence.

  • Is New World screwworm reportable?

    Yes

  • Where to get up to date information

    Companion Animal Parasite council

    CAPC

    https://capcvet.org/guidelines/cochliomyia-hominivorax/

  • What is the best way to diagnose urethral tear?

    positive contrast retrograde urethrography

  • What radiologic features suggest urethral tear?

    presence of a perineal bulge

    a perineal bulge larger in size

    heterogeneous perineal tissue

  • What are the clinical signs of NWS?

    Soft tissue destruction made woorse by secondary bacterial infection

  • What steroid is most commonly used for intra-articular joint injection?

    Triancinalone (vetalog, kenalog)

  • For hyaluronic acid therapeutic joint injection, what is preferred - high molecular weight hyaluronic acid or low molecular weight hyaluronic acid

    High molecular weight

  • How does platelet rich plasma (PRP) work?

    Release growth factors - promotes healing

    Mediates inflammation

    modulates immune response

  • Globally, what is the most important reservoir of leptospirosis?

    Rodents - especially rats

  • How can Leptospirosis be prevented?

    Vaccination - most important

     avoiding overcrowding in shelters and boarding kennels

    implementing proper drainage infrastructure

    providing rodent control

    discouraging predation.

  • How can Leptospirosis best be diagnosed?

    Diagnosis can thus be optimized by combining acute and convalescent phase serologic testing using a microscopic agglutination test (MAT) with PCR testing on urine and blood.

  • What is the best treatment for leptospirosis?

    Doxycycline 5mg/kg bid for 14 days

  • What kind of vaccine should be used?

    4 serovar

  • Describe how SGLT2 work?

    Glucose NOT rreabbsorbed by renal tubules.  Lost in urine which if your cat is a biabetic is a good thing.

  • What happens if a cat has absolutely no insulin?

    Ketosis.

  • If a cat has a glucose level of 250, what is a good test to determine if this is diabetes mellitus or stress hyperglycemia?

    Fructosamine level

  • What is the cutoff point of beta hydroxybutylate (BHB) to determine ketosis?

    2.4 mmol/L

  • How effective are SGLT2 inhibitors?

    Good but not perfect


    Serum fructosamine return to the reference interval within 30 days of treatment in ≈70% of naive diabetic cats


    peripheral neuropathy resolved in 75% of affected cats after 6 months of treatment

  • What is the most significant adverse effect of SGLT inhibitors and how often does it happen?

    Ketyoacidosis

    5-6% rate of occurence

  • What kind of diet should be recommended long term?

    Low carbohydrate


    Canned preferred because more palatable

  • Can SGLT inhibitors be used on dogs?

    No

  • According to the article, how effective is casozepine?

    22 - 31%

  • When might someone try casozepine?

    Mild cases

    Client wants a holistic approach

  • Take the quiz in the article

  • What are key indicators of pain in anesthetized cats?

    large increases (>20%) in heart rate, respiratory rate, and/or blood pressure,

  • What is the most painful part of a feline spay procedure?

    Ligating ovarian pedicles

  • What is multimodal analgesia and is it good?

    concurrent use of different classes of drugs that produce analgesia via different mechanisms.

    It is good.

  • When doing vaginoscopy on a bitch, is the cone  introduced by the dorsal commissure of the vulva or the ventral commissure of the vulva?

    Dorsal. commisure

  • What is "diapedesis"?

    Migration of RBCs across uterine arteries into the vaginal lumen resulting in bloody discharge typically seen during proestrus and early estrus.

  • What is subinvolution of placental sites?

    A postpartum uterine condition in dogs in which the placental attachment sites fail to regress (involute) normally after whelping

  • What is needed to do vaginal cytology?

    Sedation (optional)


    Large, clean, disposable otoscope cone and lighted otoscope (may not be needed for small dogs)


    Cotton-tipped applicators moistened with saline or distilled/sterile water


    Glass microscope slides


    Stains (eg, Romanowsky-type stain) for cytology


    Light microscope


    Immersion oil and coverslip (if slide will be saved).

  • What are the stages of the estrous cycle?

    proestrus

    estrus

    diestrus

    anestrus

  • What are the stages of the estral cycle?

    High molecular weight

  • How long can signs of subinvolution of placental sites (SIPS) last?

    16 weeks

  • When does postpartum metritis occur?

    Within one week of parturition

  • What is a tocolytic medicine?

    Stops (premature) uterine contractions

  • What are ECG signs of hyperkalemia?

    Bradycardia

    peaked T waves

    disappearing p waves

  • 10% calcium gluconate is used to treat life threatening arrythmias caused by hyperkalemia?  Will this treatment lower the potassium level?

    No

    Hyperkalemia causes the resting membrane potential of cardiac myocytes to become less negative (partially depolarized). As potassium rises:


    Sodium channels become inactivated.

    Cardiac conduction slows.

    Life-threatening arrhythmias can develop.

    Calcium gluconate raises the threshold potential of cardiac cells, restoring the difference between the resting membrane potential and the threshold potential. This stabilizes the myocardial cell membrane

  • What are other treatments for hyperkalemia?

    Beta blockers - terbutaline, albuterol nasal spray

    Regular IV insulin (0.25-0.5 IU/kg) followed by an IV bolus of 50% dextrose

  • What is the formula to use NaHCO3 to treat acidosis?

    Bicarbonate deficit (mEq) = (normal HCO3¯ − actual HCO3¯) × 0.3 × body weight (kg). Typically, a value of 20 to 24 is used as the normal HCO3¯

  • What procedure is super helpful dealing with blocked cats but often times is neglected?

    Sacrococcygeal  epidural anesthesia with 2% lidocaine

  • According to the authors, how much urine should be removed if doing a therapeutic cystocentesis?

    As much as possible.  Use a three way stopcock.

  • If you are presented with a blocked cat from a first time client.  The client clearly does not have the means to treat the cat properly.  Without treatment, the cat will die. With treatment, the prognosis is good.  How would you handle this?

    No right or wrong answer.  How would you handle this?

  • What is the difference between gold standard Care and spectrum of care?

    Gold standard care is the best available diagnostic or treatment approach


    Spectrum of care is a clinical decision-making framework that recognizes there may be multiple medically acceptable approaches to managing a patient.

  • Describe the parallel technique of dental radiography

    Place the sensor parallel and adjacent to the desired teeth, on the lingual aspect of the mandible. Then, aim the tube head perpendicular to the sensor.

  • What is the name of the technique to take most dental x-rays?

    Bisecting angle technique

  • Review image two and image three of this article. What do you see that is odd and some people might say inappropriate for anesthetized patient?

    Dog is anesthetized but not intubated.

  • Why is there less chance of surgical wound dehiscence with the flank spay approach?

    :ess abdominal content weight on the incision

  • What are contraindications to the flank spay approach?

    Obesity

    Pyometra

    Pregnancy

    Kittens < 12 weeks

    Estrus

  • Should cats be placed in right lateral or left lateral recumbency if the surgeon is right handed?

    Left lateral

  • What is the best way to reach the right ovary?

    After removing the left uterine horn, follow this to the cervix, identify the right uterine horn, and follow it cranial

  • What is the significance of pruritic erythematous lesions primarily involving the paws?

    Dog is allergic to something that it is walking on

  • A food trial for food allergy takes 2 to 3 months to complete. To be valid, the client has to stick to the speeding regimen precisely. Also, no leftovers and no rating the garbage can.  What do you think the odds are of a client doing this for the duration?

    No right or wrong answer.  This is just something you need to think about.

  • What is the common name for topical fluocinolone acetonide 0.01%/dimethyl sulfoxide 60% otic solution?

    Synotic

    Very useful to control allergic otitis once it is "cured".

  • Why is hyposensitization good?

    Only allergen-specific immunotherapy can alter the immune response and address the cause of atopic disease.

  • Why is hyposensitization not good?

    Takes a long time to work.

    Does not allways work (but you don't know for a long time)

    You can still have flareups

  • What is the significance of pruritic erythematous lesions primarily involving the paws?

    Dog is allergic to something that it is walking on

  • A food trial for food allergy takes 2 to 3 months to complete. To be valid, the client has to stick to the speeding regimen precisely. Also, no leftovers and no rating the garbage can.  What do you think the odds are of a client doing this for the duration?

    No right or wrong answer.  This is just something you need to think about.

  • What is the common name for topical fluocinolone acetonide 0.01%/dimethyl sulfoxide 60% otic solution?

    Synotic

    Very useful to control allergic otitis once it is "cured".

  • Why is hyposensitization good?

    Only allergen-specific immunotherapy can alter the immune response and address the cause of atopic disease.

  • Why is hyposensitization not good?

    Takes a long time to work.

    Does not allways work (but you don't know for a long time)

    You can still have flareups

  • In dogs does CRP levels increase with stress or use of corticosteroids in a manner similar to leukocyte count?

    No

  • What is the best acute phase protein (APP) to use in cats?

    Serum Amyloid A (SSA)

  • What feline disease is alpha – one – acid glycoprotein (AGP) particularly helpful for?

    Feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)

  • What conditions does Pancreatitis-associated protein 1 (PAP1) increase?

    Pancreatitis

    Sepsis

    Intestinal

  • In what pathologic condition is Alpha 1-proteinase inhibitor (alpha 1-PI) particularly helpful?

    GI protein loss

  • Are inert ingredients listed in a medication always safe because they are “inert”?

    No, e.g. xylitol

  • If you plan to perform a gastric lavage to “wash out” toxins, what should you do to prevent aspiration pneumonia?

    Intubate,  This means the dog or cat is anesthetized.

  • Why might one use diazepam?  misoprostol? Silymarin (milk thistle)?

    Anticonvulsant

    Gastric protectant.  best for NSAID

    Hepatoprotectant

  • With respect to neuromuscular junction pharmacology, what does SSRI stand for?

    Selective Serotonin Reuptake inhibitor.

  • Are OTC urine marijuana test reliable for dogs and cats?

    No.

  • What are bisphosphonates (eg, pamidronate, zoledronate) indicated for?

    Lower Ca level in hypercalcemic petiants, e.g. Vitamin D toxicity

  • What is the key factor in the progression of CKD? And what is the path of mechanism of this?

    Hypoxia

    Anemia compromises oxygen delivery to the kidneys, compounded by loss of vasculature (ie, peritubular capillary rarefaction).

  • Title or Question
    Describe the item or answer the question so that site visitors who are interested get more information. You can emphasize this text with bullets, italics or bold, and add links.
  • When is blood transfusion indicated for cats with CKD?

    Severe anemia - PCV < 20.  Neeed for rapid fix

  • What is the primary adverse effect of darbopoiten?

    Hypertension

  • What is the best way to give supplemental in anemic cats?

    Iron injections (iron dextran, 50 mg/cat IM)

  • What is Molidustat

    Hypoxia-Inducible Factor Prolyl-Hydroxylase Inhibitors.

  • What is the most common reason for gingival flap dehiscence?

    Excessive tension on suture line

  • Title or Question
    Describe the item or answer the question so that site visitors who are interested get more information. You can emphasize this text with bullets, italics or bold, and add links.
  • What is the best way to reduce tension the gingiva?

    strategic releasing incisions

    The video in the article demonstrating this is excellent.

  • What tooth is associated with the most oral nasal fistula?

    maxillary canine

  • How can you assess mandibular fracture risk?

    Dental radiography

  • How should one deal with intractable leaning if one of the major arteries is inadvertently severed during a dental extraction procedure?

    Pack off the area with a sponge or clotting material (eg, absorbable hemostatic gelatin sponges, bone wax) for 10 to 15 minutes.


    Note- This happens and can be very disconcerting

  • How many litter boxes should a four cat household have?

    Five (Number of cats + 1)

    Also at least one on each floor

  • Why do cats urinate in bad places when they have a painful bladder problem?

    Note - This is my explanation.


    Cats never blame themselves.

    If they feel pain when they go to urinate in the litter box it must be the litter box fault.

    Thderefore (to a cat) it makes sense to try a different surface.

  • What is the significance of a cat urinating a small amount on a vertical surface?

    Marking.

    This is actually a normal behavior in cats.

  • Name a drug or nutraceutical that reduces stress.

    Fluoxetine

    Paroxetine

    Clomipramine


    l-theanine

     a-casozepine

  • What test is the best predictor of death for FIP?

    LDH

  • If a is destined to die from FIP even with state of the art antivirals, and what timeframe does this happen?

    One week


  • What is the most common signalment for canine discospondylitis?

    Young large breed hunting dog.

  • Is brucellosis a reportable disease in New York State?

    Yes (according to ChatGPT)

  • What is an “A-Iine”?

    An A-line is a horizontal reverberation artifact seen on lung ultrasound (POCUS).  A-lines are generally a sign of a normally aerated lung.

  • What is a B-line”?

    A B-line is a vertical ultrasound artifact seen during lung POCUS that indicates loss of normal lung aeration immediately beneath the pleura.

  • Is POCUS objective and straightforward or is it subjective and open to interpretation?

    Subjective and open to interpretation.

  • What is confirmation bias?

    When you have expectations and your findings validate this even if it is wrong.

  • Does dosage and duration of treatment with trimethoprim sulfanamide (TMS) having an influence on the development of KCS?

    LDH

  • What other factor is associated with increased incidents of KCS when TMS is used?

    Age

    Breeds predisposed:  Boxers, Rottweilers, West Highland white terriers, Maltese, kelpies, poodles, border collies, and Staffordshire bull terriers


  • How soon after TMS is started should the dog be tested for dry eye using the STT?

    One to two weeks.

  • What breed is most associated with indolent corneal ulcers?

    Boxers > 6 yrs

  • What is the most important aspect of treating indolent corneal ulcers?

    Debridement - remove diseased corneal tissue

  • What is typically done to keep the dog from self-traumatizing the eye during treatment?

    E collar

    analgesia

  • Is POCUS objective and straightforward or is it subjective and open to interpretation?

    Subjective and open to interpretation.

  • What is confirmation bias?

    When you have expectations and your findings validate this even if it is wrong.

  • What is a good and quick way to assess traumatic thoracic injury?

    POCUS - Point of care ultrasound

  • Should penetrating objects be removed immediately?

    No

  • What is the glide sign and what does it indicate?

    Back-and-forth movement seen at the pleural line as the visceral pleura slides against the parietal pleura during respiration.



    If absent consider pneumothorax

  • If pneumothorax recurs after a therapeutic thoracocentesis what is the next step?

    Thoracostomy (chest) tube

  • How does one prevent blood from flowing into the trachea during an ala vestibuloplasty or otherwise control bleeding?

    tilt head down (blood flows out)


    intubate and pack laryngeal area with gauze


    Pack the enlarged nares with cotton-tipped applicators soaked in a vasoconstricting nasal solution (eg, phenylephrine, oxymetazoline).

  • What is the most important aspect of treating indolent corneal ulcers?

    Debridement - remove diseased corneal tissue

  • Would you do a coagulation panel with this procedure?

    Yes - or at least I would


    PT - Prothrombin time


    a PTT - aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)


    BMBT - Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time 

  • How would you describe this procedure to a client?

    The removal of obstructive tissue in the nares which thereby allows better airflow.

  • What is staphylectomy?

    Surgical removal (partial resection) of an elongated soft palate

  • What is laryngeal sacculectomy?

    Surgical removal of everted laryngeal saccules,

  • My thoughts

    The ala vestibuloplasty seems like a great technique with the theoretical advantages. But as a primary care veterinarian, it scares me a bit. I have done alar wing amputation (trader technique) It helps and is pretty simple to do.  Usually, I I've done it in conjunction with a routine spay.

    In the world of treating animals, incremental therapy has a place as opposed to goal standard therapy, simply because of limitations of specialist availability and of course cost.

  • What is a good and quick way to assess traumatic thoracic injury?

    POCUS - Point of care ultrasound

  • Should penetrating objects be removed immediately?

    No

  • What is the glide sign and what does it indicate?

    Back-and-forth movement seen at the pleural line as the visceral pleura slides against the parietal pleura during respiration.



    If absent consider pneumothorax

  • If pneumothorax recurs after a therapeutic thoracocentesis what is the next step?

    Thoracostomy (chest) tube

  • What is the Pet Health Paradox?

    Pet owners say they will go to extreme legnths to save their pets yet when faced with a critical life threatening situation they do not behave this way.

  • What are the reasons for the pet health paradox?

    Cost is the big one (44%)


    Not being sure if the issue was serious enough to warrant a visit (25%)


    Not being able to get a timely appointment (17%)


    Work or family scheduling conflicts (16%).

  • How are clients dealing with questions whether their pet needs to be seen by a veterinarian?

    One line (Google) search


    Artificial intelligence


    Remote telemedicine

  • What is the best way to get clients into the clinic quicker more reliably?

    Get them in quick, ideally same day.


    If a pet is to have surgery, offered to have client drop off the pet the day before in order to accommodate the clients schedule

  • What is spectrum of care? Some people call it incremental care.

    Doing what you can for the Pette within the means of the owner. I personally call this,"best paying for the buck approach".

  • What is the best test to qualify proteinuria?

    Urine Protein creatinine ratio (UPCR)

  • What is the most common reason for proteinuria?

    Urinary tract infections (UTI)

  • How can you differentiate hematuria from hemoglobinuria?

    Centrifuge


    Hematuria - the RBC's will form pellet on the bottom of the centrifuge tube after centrifugation


    Hemoglobinuria - the supernatant stays red after centrifugation.

  • What part of the nephron is most associated with proteinuria?

    Glomerulus

  • Dogs with protein, losing nephropathy are prone to thromboembolic disease. Why?

    Antithrombin is lost in the urine

  • What is Fanconi syndrome?

    An inherited or occasionally acquired disease of the proximal renal tubules that leads to defects in the resorption of glucose, ketones, amino acids, phosphate, bicarbonate, calcium, and/or potassium, as well as various renal defects.

  • What is overload proteinuria>

    A pathologic state causes an increase in plasma concentration of small proteins that are able to pass freely through a healthy glomerulus and are abundant enough to overwhelm the resorptive capacity of the renal tubules.

    Hemoglobin, Bence Jones proteins, myoglobulin

  • What is the upper limit of respiratory rate in a cat?

    30

  • What is the most important diagnostic test for heart disease in cats.

    Echocardiography


    For whatever it's worth, if I were to choose one test, it would be radiology because it gives you more global picture of what's going on with the entire thorax, particularly congestive heart failure.

  • If one is planning to do a dental procedure, how much before should the aspirin and other anticoagulant speed stopped?

    5 to 7 days

  • What are the initial steps to take when presented with a carpal/tarsal injury with significant soft tissue damage?

    stabilize patient

    analgesis / sedation

    clip hiar and clean wound

    cover surface with sterile aqueous gel

    Robert Jones banfdage

  • What kind of injury might cause the palmigrade  stance as seen with this cat (see attachment)?

    Hyperextension

  • What is varus? What is valgus?

    VARUS → distal limb points IN


    VALGUS → distal limb points OUT

  • What is the significance of increased lateral or medial movement when stress radiographs are taken?

    Collateral ligament damage

  • True or false - FDA approval is not relevant when it comes to transdermal medication's?

    False

    FDA-approved transdermal products provide significantly more reliability than compounded transdermal medications.

  • What are the three transcutaneous drugs that this author feels are good for cats?

    Methimazole

    Phenobarbital

    Fluoxetine

  • Do pregnant women need to be concerned applying transdermal methimazole to hyporthyroid cats?

    This was a trick question.  Methimazole. is considered a hazzard is drugged for pregnant women. But methimazole is for hyperthyroid cats and not hypothyroid cats.

  • Is transdermal fluoxetine good?

    Not really.  The author listed it as an appropriate transdermal drug, but in reading the description he provides, it really doesn't sound so great.

  • A clinician can usually find an underlying cause for osteoarthritis.  True or false?

    False

  • What is frunevetmab (solensia)?

    An injectable analgesic.

     a monoclonal antibody that targets nerve growth factor

  • What is the most important thing to consider with feline osteoarthritis? This includes obese cats.

    In the long run, weight loss is the most important thing. However, that is a long process. Pain control is most important at the start. Without that the cat is likely to be immobile, which will compromise the joints.

  • Compare polysulfated glycosaminoglycan) with glucosamine/chondroitin.

    From ChatGPT. 

    PSGAG - IM injection, works fast, FDA approved, active OA treatment

    Chondroiten glucosamine - oral, refreshes key ingredients in joint fluid.


    Clearly Chat likes PSGAG better.  I found the opposite in practice.  However if I were still in practice, I would give PSGAG another try.

  • Can lidocaine be used as a bolus and/or CRI in cats?

    Yes

  • What dose of IV lidocaine in the article was suggested?

    IV Bolus - 2mg/kg


    CRI - 3mg.kg/hr

  • What are the signs of lidocaine intoxication?

    Neurologic signs of:  excitation, agitation, nystagmus, respiratory depression.  May be difficult to detect in an anesthetized patient.

  • Who clears lidocaine from plasma faster, awake cats or anesthetize cats and why?

    Awake cats clear faster.

    Anesthetize cats have lower cardiac output and therefore lower hepatic clearance

  • Describe acrtal lick dermatitis

    Distal extremities

    compulsive. disorder

    Erythematous, crusted lesion that progresses to alopecia, thickening of the skin, erosions, and ulcers.

  • What causes acral lick dermatitis

    Allergy

  • Why is cytology important?

    Identify secondary infection.

  • Do dogs that have acral lick dermatitis generally have deep pyoderma?

    Yes - 94% of cases

  • When is a direct smear indicated?

    Fresh sample

    looking for motile protozoa

  • Is G duodenalis coproantigen test indicated for non clinical animals?

    No


    The recommendation used to be different. Over a period of time I came to realize that I was cleaning the lab result and not the animal.

  • What are the signs of lidocaine intoxication?

    Neurologic signs of:  excitation, agitation, nystagmus, respiratory depression.  May be difficult to detect in an anesthetized patient.

  • Who clears lidocaine from plasma faster, awake cats or anesthetize cats and why?

    Awake cats clear faster.

    Anesthetize cats have lower cardiac output and therefore lower hepatic clearance

  • When is fecal sedimentation test indicated? For what types of parasites?

    Parasites with heavy and dense eggs.


    Cestodes and trematodes

  • WHen is a direct smear indicated?

    Elevation of the bilateral third eyelid (ie, nictitating membrane) with no other ocular findings.

  • What former logic agent is used to at least temporarily resolve Haws syndrome and Why/how does it work?

    Topical phenylepherine 1%


    It is an alpha adrenergic agonist which has an effect on the sympathetic nervous system and resolves Haws syndrome

  • What else can be done to resolve Haws syndrome?

    Prebiotics and probiotics.

  • How is URTD virus transmitted?

    Direct contact

    Fomites

  • When is the best time to PCR test for feline Herpesvirus?

    Early in acute disease and prior to application of ocular stains that may interfere with test results).

  • What is the most important thing in treating feline Herpesvirus infection?

    Good husbandry - reduce stress, nutrition, hyydration, clean environment

  • Are antibiotics indicated for most Herpesvirus infection.

  • What is the topical antiviral agent most often used (but only in severe cases)?

    Topical - cidofovir


    Systemic - Famciclovir

  • Is Ampicillin/sulbactam administered at 30 mg/kg IV every 8 hours effective for gram-negative bacteria?

    Usually no

  • What antibiotics have better activity against gram-negative bacteria?

    Aminoglycasides

    Fluoroquinilones

  • Why is Ampicillin/sulbactam effective for bladder bacterial infections?

    Eliminated through the kidneys and concentrated in urine.

  • What is canine nasal aspergillosis? key features.

    Etiology - Aspergillus fumigatus

     Locally invasive fungal infection 

    North America

     Young to middle-aged, dolichocephalic breeds (eg, German shepherd dogs, Siberian huskies, retrievers). 

    Destructive turbinate lysis and fungal plaque formation result in chronic mucopurulent discharge, epistaxis, nasal pain, and, in progressive cases, external planum changes 



  • Name some differential diagnosis for nasal aspergillosis.

    discoid lupus erythematosus

    neoplasia

    other inflammatory dermatoses.

  • What is the nick name for feline pododermatitis

    Pillow foot

  • Is this condition painful?

    Aminoglycasides

    Fluoroquinilones

  • What hematologic abnormality is typically found with plasma cell Pododermatitis?

    Polyclonal gammapathy

  • What is the etiology and pathogenesis of plasma cell pododermatitis?

    Not known for sure.  But immune dysfunction is leading candidte

  • Is there a connection between silica-based cat litter and granulomas and/or feline plasma cell pododermatitis?

    Maybe - avoid silica based litter in cats with these conditions

  • What is the concern of using doxycycline to treat these cases?

    antibiotic stewardship and bacterial resistance.

  • What are benefits of propofol?

    rapid onset

    short duration of action

    quick redistribution

    short elimination half-life.

  • What are the risk of propofol?

    Apnea

    Hypotension

  • What is the optimal constant rate infusion? (CRI) for dogs when premedicated with methadone and dexmedetomidine?

    1mg/kg/min

  • In the article, what do they mean by desaturation?

    a drop in the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the blood, usually detected by a pulse oximeter (SpO₂).


  • Can corticosteroid alone be used to treat canine or aural hematoma?

    Yes 


    I used to do this a lot because it is much cheaper than surgery.   Sometimes I did it with intermittent aspiration.

  • What is the risk of passive drainage in treating hematoma?

    It is harder for the auricular cartilage to adhere to the pinnal skin.

  • What are the basic surgical steps in treating aural hematomas?

    Prep the area

    Incise the skin.  Not the articular cartilage,  S shaped incision.

    Remove clots and flush the cavity.

    In one way or another secure the skin to the cartilage with sutures.

  • What ideologic agent is most associated with corneal ulcers with FURD?

    FHV-1.   Herpes

  • Is oral famciclovir helpful for FURD in kittens?

    Slight advantage

  • What does ANNPE, FCE, HNPE and IVVD stand for?

    Acute noncompressive nucleus pulposus extrusion, 

    fibrocartilaginous embolism

    hydrated nucleus pulposus extrusion (HNPE)

    Intervertebral Disc disease.

  • What is the difference between acute noncompressive nucleus pulposus extrusion (ANNPE), fibrocartilaginous embolism (FCE), and hydrated nucleus pulpolsus extrusion (HNPE)?

    All are nondegenerative conditions with acute to peracute onset of myelopathic signs in dogs. 


    ANNPE → HIT

    The nucleus pulposus hits the cord → contusion.


    FCE → INFARCT

    Fibrocartilage blocks a vessel → ischemia/infarction.


    HNPE → SQUEEZE

    Hydrated nucleus pulposus remains in the canal → compression.

  • How does the vertebral heart core (VHS) in brachycephalic  breeds compared to deep chested breeds?

    VHS is larger

    Brachycephalic hearts appear to have large hearts

  • What is the vertebral left atrial score (VLAS) and how is it determined?

    Use a right lateral thoracic radiograph.


    Identify the ventral border of the carina.


    Draw a straight line from the ventral aspect of the carina to the most caudal aspect of the left atrium where it intersects the dorsal border of the caudal vena cava.


    Take that measured distance and transpose it onto the vertebral column.


    Start at the cranial edge of T4 and extend the measurement caudally along the vertebral column.


    Record the length in vertebral body units, generally to the nearest 0.1 vertebra.


    That number is the VLAS.

  • In cases of congestive heart failure, how does the lung pattern differ between Myxomatous mitral valve disease (MMVD), and dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)?

    MMVD - lung pathology and associated radiographic changes tend to start at perihilar region annd extend caudal dorsally.


    DCM - pathologic changes tend to be ventral

  • How does the pulmonary vasculature appear in right sided heart failure?

    Reduced.


    Pulmonary veins are hypoperfused.

  • What does VOHC stand for and what does it mean to veterinarian and clients alike?

     VOHC - products that meet preset standards of plaque and/or tartar control in dogs and cats.


    It doesn't necessarily mean that VOHC products are better, only that they have proven themselves to a panel of experts that they meet certain standard standards.

  • Do you think Every client owned pet should have its teeth brushed by the client on a daily basis?

    This is an opinion question. But I don't think so. Not every client is capable of brushing its dogs or cats teeth. And not every dog lends itself to such daily procedures. And if the pet resist it could lead to behavioral issues.


    There are passive products that can be used

  • What are your favorite home dental care products? Why did you choose?

    No right or wrong answer here.  But come up with something - atleast three products.

  • How many trials are necessary to get VOHC approval?

    Two

  • What kind of mammals does Dracunculus insignis infect?

    Wild carnivores

    raccoons, mink, muskrats, foxes, coyotes, otters but can also infect domestic dogs and cats.

  • What is a copepod?

    A copepod is a tiny aquatic crustacean found in freshwater and marine environments. 


    Microscopic or only a few millimeters long 


    Form an important part of zooplankton.

  • How does Darcunculiasis present?

    Swollen area with a worm in the center

  • How does one prevent Dracunculiasis?

    Don't let dog or cat drink contaminated water or eat amphibians or raw fish

  • Dracunculiasis is commonly called Guinea worm disease.

    Guinea worm

  • What is usually (not always) better, fine-needle aspiration (FNA) or fine-needle nonaspiration (FNNA) for obtaining cytology samples?

    FNNA - fine-needle nonaspiration

  • What is a copepod?

    A copepod is a tiny aquatic crustacean found in freshwater and marine environments. 


    Microscopic or only a few millimeters long 


    Form an important part of zooplankton.

  • What is the cutoff gauge size between fine needle aspiration and core biopsy?

    20 gauge

  • What are the pros of FNA versus core biopsy? (not in article)

    quicker

    does not need full anesthesia

    can be processed and interpretted at clinic

    safer

    less expensive

  • What are the cons of FNA versus core biopsy? (not in article)

    FNA / FNNA does not provide as reliable in accurate diagnostic material

  • What provides longer contact time of drug to conjunctiva, suspension or ointment?

    Ointment

  • How long (days) should topical steroids be used in conjunctivitis?

    Two to three days beyond clinical cure.

  • What do you think of using corticosteroids for feline conjunctivitis?

    Use caution.  Most cases of feline conjunctivitis is infectious.

  • Neomycin can cause local drug-related hypersensitivity reactions that result in increased ocular redness, discomfort, and blepharitis.  What is a good strategy to deal with this?

    Call back in one or two days after drug is started.  Most drug reactions occur soon after application.

  • Of these veterinary ophthalmic crugs, how many are readily available in your home area or where you intend to start practice?   Diclofenac (0.1%) Ketorolac (0.4%-0.5% solution) Suprofen (1% solution) Flurbiprofen (0.03% solution) Bromfenac (0.07%-0.09% solution) Nepafenac (0.1%-0.3% suspension)

    On Lomg Island it is diclofenac and ketorolac.

  • Why are topical ocular is a constrictors not recommended?

    Chronic hypoxia of the ocular surface and increased long-term (rebound) clinical signs are possible.

  • Tacrolimus and cyclosporine are used to treat KCS in dogs. Are these forever drugs?

    Yes


    I have seen good improvement with these drugs in many dogs. But I have seen very few clients who have been able to administer these drugs forever and therefore they eventually fail. This is compounded by the fact that KCS tends to occur in brachiocephalic little dogs that want to kill you when you approach their face

  • What are systemic side effects of pilocarpine?

    excessive salivation, decreased appetite, diarrhea, and vomiting

  • Can (or should) bacterial conjunctivitis in cancer be treated solely with topical antibiotics?

    No.  Systemic antibiotics are generally indicated because the infection tends to involve respiratory or other anatomical areas

  • What is the concern of using antibiotics prophylactically?

    Bacterial resistance.

  • What is the worrisome side effect of fluoroquinolones in cats?

    Retinal toxicity

  • Should antiviral medication's used to treat, viral keratitis, be discontinued, or tapered when signs of resolved?

    Discontinued (according to article)

  • Why is cidofovir the best topical antiviral agent?

    It only needs to be given twice a day.

  • Why is cidofovir a bad choice to treat cats?

    The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) classifies cidofovir as a hazardous drug.

  • When would you use famciclovir?

    Patients with significant clinical signs and corneal ulceration.

  • Is the use of lycine to treat feline herpes, virus, clearcut and always indicated?

    No.  There are conflicting study results.


    Note - I've used lysing supplementation a lot. I am not sure it always helps. But I have not seen too many cats harmed by it.

  • What causes less inflammation, silicone or polypropylene catheters?

    Silicone


  • What is Hydropulsion?

    Flushing the uethra in a retrograde manner to releive obstruction.

  • Should antibiotics be given prophylactically when enjoying urinary catheters are used?

    No

  • How can you make urinary catheterization in an obstructed pet easier?

    sterile lubricants

    Use sedation or anesthesia

    use urethral relaxants, prazocin, phenoxybenzamine

    Therapeutic cystocentesis

    frozen reb rubber tubes - keep in freezer.  The stiffness from being frozen will help pass the catheter.  Then as it warms up it becomes more pliable

  • What are signs of separation anxiety?

    distress


    vocalization (eg, barking, whining)


    drooling


    destroying household items


    house soiling


    attempting to escape the crate or home

  • What part of the brain controls emotion?

    Limbic system

  • What is the “BOND” training method?

    Be positive: Reward positive behaviors and avoid reprimanding unwanted behavior.


    • Only reward calm behavior: Ignore attention-seeking behavior.


    • No more drama when you come and go: Remain calm when

    coming and going from the home


    Develop your dog’s independence: 

  • What is the chemical neurotransmitter that when increased as a calming effect?

    Serotonin

  • In puppies, what is the socialization period and why is it important in the development of future aggression?

    3 to 12 weeks


    Lack of positive, early, and appropriate exposures to humans, other dogs, noises, and novel stimuli can lead to aggression.

  • True or false:  puppies that display, fearful and avoidance behavior at 3 to 4 months of the age tend to evolve into more outright aggressive behavior when they reach one to one and a half years of age.

    True


    It can be a very challenging and difficult conversation with the client when you was a veterinarian see a developing aggressive behavior, and the client refuses to recognize it.

  • What human behaviors can be misinterpreted by the dog as aggressive and lead to counter aggression by the dog to the owner?

    Peyting the doog on the forehead (especially by strangers)


    staring


    leaning over


    sudden movements

  • At what age are children particularly vulnerable to being bit by their own household pet?

    5 to 9 years

  • What situations can lower the threshold in a dog for an aggressive outburst?

    Anything painful


    Anything stressful


    resource guarding


    Canine cognitive dysfunction

  • What do you think of acepromazine as an anxiolytic?

    Not good.


    This is so much different than a generation ago when acepromazine was the "go to drug".

  • What two drugs are approved for separation anxiety?

    Fluoxetine


    Clomipramine

  • What are some non-pharmacologic methods to reduce anxiety in dogs?

    Thunder shirt


    phermones (Adaptil collar)


    white noise


    secluded "safe room"

  • Define serotonin syndrome (SS).

    A spectrum of clinical signs caused by the effects of elevated serotonin levels.

  • Are herbal medicines safe and of no concern in terms of serotonin syndrome? 

    No

    Supplements that contain tryptophan can be converted into serotonin and contribute to this syndrome.

  • What body systems are affected by serotonin syndrome?

    CNS

    GI

  • How long should a serotonin syndrome patient be held before safe to send home?

    48 to 72 hours

  • For patients with high temperatures, over 106°F should antipyretics be used?Title or Question

    No

  • What drugs can be used to counteract some of the bad effects of serotonin syndrome?

    Agitation

    Acepromazine 

    Chlorpromazine


    Some serotonin receptor antagonist activity

    Cyproheptadine


    Tremors

    Methocarbamol 


    Note risk for CNS/respiratory depression with high doses.


    Seizures - Phenobarbital 

    Propofol at 2–6 mg/kg IV or 0.1–0.6 mg/kg/min CRI


    Arrhythmias = In tachycardic patients (dogs, >180 bpm; cats, >220–240 bpm) not responsive to sedation, use of β-blockers may be necessary.





  • What drugs should be avoided in treating serotonin syndrome?

    benzodiazapenes

    S-adenosylmethionine (SAMe)

    Mg containing cathartics

  • What are some possible complications?

    rhabdomyolysis

    myoglobinuria

    disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

    renal hypoxia/failure

    respiratory/CNS depression,

  • What dog breed is most associated with flank sucking?

    Dobermans

  • What categories of drugs are used to treat canine compulsive disorder?

     serotonergic and dopaminergic drug

  • What is the problem with recommending a word certified Veterinary Behaviorist?

    There are not many.  Very often a client would have to travel long distances just to be evaluated. This becomes more of a burden if multiple Recheck visits are recommended.

  • Will antibiotics given 30 minutes before cystotomy affect culture results?

    No

  • Should the bladder be entered ventrally or dorsally and why?

    Ventral


    Easier to see trigone and extend incision to urethra if necessary

  • What is normograde as opposed to retrograde.

    Normograde - bladder to urethral orifice

  • Why are inverting sutures best avoided?

    This can lead to obstruction.

  • Describe closure of cystotomy incision

    Simple interrupted


    The bites should engage the seromuscular layers and submucosa (holding layer), while avoiding penetration of the mucosa.


     Suture bites should be 3 to 4 mm apart


    Sutures should not penetrate into bladder lumen

  • Why should abdominal x-rays be taken post cystotomy

    Confirm that no stones are left behind

  • When might NSAID's not be indicated?

    Azotemia

    Hypotensxion

  • If you pressure, check a bladder after closure and see a leak what should you do?

    Close the leak with a simple interrupted or cruciate pattern. Use monofilament absorbable suture. Talk to me.

  • By what age should the testicles descend into the scrotum?

    Two to four months

  • What conditions suggest a male dog may have retained testicle?

    perineal hernia


    perianal tumor


    prostamegaly (caution - could also be neoplasia)

  • What conditions suggest a male cat may have retained testicle?

    loss of penile spines


    continued urine spraying


    odiferous urine

  • What hormone test are used to diagnose retained functional testicular tissue?

    Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) stimulation

    Anti-Müllerian hormone biomarker tests


    Note - In the real world of veterinary medicine I did not remember the protocol for these test. However, it's easy enough to check on this from the lab.

  • Can ultrasound be used to find a retained testicle?

    Yes


    Note - I do not believe this is as reliable as suggested in the article

  • Why should retained testicles be removed and the dog. castrated?

    Retained testicles have higher incidence or neoplasia and torsion


    Condition is genetic

  • What is the gubernaculum?

    A fibrous band of connective tissue that helps guide the descent of a gonad during embryonic development.

  • What is the author's preferred approach for cryptorchid neuters?

    Paramedian lateral to prepuce

  • How can the prostate be distinguished from a retained testicle?

    Prostate is medial and fixed.  Caudal to bladder,  Dugtus deferens is dorsal to prostate.

    Ductus defefens runs lateral ventral to testicle.

    Testicle is not fixed in position.

  • What is the author's preferred method to remove cryptorchid testicles?

    Laproscopic

  • What is the ductus deferens (vas deferens)?

    The ductus deferens (vas deferens) is the muscular tube that transports sperm from the epididymis to the urethra

  • What are very rare but very serious mistakes that have been reported doing a cryptorchid neuter?

    Misidentifying the prostate as a retain testicle


    Misidentifying the ureter as the ductus deferens and causing damage (even avulsion)

  • What is a disadvantage of the paramedian approach?

    The retained testicle is closer to its origin by the kidney. It would be very difficult to isolate.

  • What are signs of fear aggression?

    low body posture


    tucked tail


    growling


    lunging when approached by team members.

  • What are the key ingredients with the chill protocol?

    Gabapentin

    Melatonin

    Oral transmucosal (OTM) acepromazine

  • What is a key feature as to how these medication's are given?

    They are given at home before the stress inducing visit happens.


    I was not sure how to ask this question. But the point is don't wait till the last minute to give tranquilizers or sedatives. They won't work as well.

  • Where is melatonin produced?

    Pinneal gland

  • What is the anatomical location of the pineal gland?

    Brain


    Located in the epithalamus, which is part of the diencephalon

    Situated between the two cerebral hemispheres

    Just dorsal to the midbrain

    Attached to the roof of the third ventricle

  • How long can sedation from the chill protocol last?

    Up to 24 hours

  • If you use the chill protocol or any sedative protocol to complete a diagnostic evaluation, what should you be prepared for?

    There might be pressure for you to complete the treatment, surgery or otherwise on the spot. This can be a dicey predicament for the clinician. Best thing to do is to be able to communicate by phone with the client

  • What is a major clue that a dermatologic condition may be more than inflammatory?

    It does not respond to standard and I inflammatory treatment.


    This was not intended to be a trick question. The truth of the matter is value to respond to a treatment is in and of itself a clue.

  • What are differentials for this case?

    Cutaneous neoplasia (epitheliotropic lymphoma, mastocytosis)

    Histiocytic disease

    Infectious granulomatous disease

    Sterile or infectious panniculitis

    Deep pyoderma

    Sterile pyogranulomatous dermatitis.

  • What treatment was given?

    Lomustine (CCNU; 60 mg/m2 PO every 3 weeks) 

    This was administered every 3 to 4 weeks as a chemotherapeutic medication.

  • What side effects can happen with chemotherapy

    Myelospression


    Hepatocytoxicity

  • What chronic condition can predispose to cutaneous lymphoma?

    Atopy

  • What is the prognosis of CTCL?

    Poor

  • What is the main purpose of fenbendazole?

    Kills intestinal parasites

  • What is the dose of fenbendazole?

    50mg /KG for three days PO


    This is 1 g of granular powder per 10 pounds

  • What is an extra label use of fenbendazole in dogs?

    Lung worms


    (Oslerus osleri, Eucoleus aerophilus [formerly Capillaria aerophila], Crenosoma vulpis)

  • What is an extra label use of fenbendazole in cats?

    Lung worms


    (Aelurostrongylus abstrusus)

  • How many days to treat long worms?

    14 days

  • What is an adverse effect of fenbendazole and other benzimidazole dewormers?

    Bone marrow hypoplaasia

    pancytopenia

  • How is Trilostane described as a pharmacologic agent?

    competitive inhibitor of 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase





  • Does trilostane make adrenal glands bigger (hyperplastic) or smaller (hypoplastic)?

    Bigger

  • Should trilostane be given once a day or twice a day?

    bid

  • With trilostane what is the problem with compounding?

    Unrelisble.  Actual drug content varies a lot

  • How often should you do an ACTH test?

    Every 4 to 6 weeks


    Realistically, many clients will not do this.  It's just a lot for them

  • What is cpACTH?

    post-ACTH cortisol concentrations

  • What is a good starting dose of trilostane?

     0.5 to 1 mg/kg PO every 12 hours 

  • Where in the United States might one encounter Yesenia pestis or the plague?

    Western states


  • What are clinical signs of Yersinia pestis?

    Fever

    Dyspnea

    enlarged lymph nodes

    mucosal bleeding (especially oral and nasal)

    anorexia

    hemoptysis

    Bubos

  • What is the principal vector of Yersinia pestis?

    Fleas

  • How should someone handling a plague positive dog or cat (or suspected Plague) protect himself for herself from zoonotic infection?

    N95 respirator


    gloves


    Face shield or goggles

  • Is Yersinia pestis a reportable disease?

    Yes

  • How does one definitively diagnose Yersinia pestis?

    Cukture

    Cytology

    PCR

    Serology

  • What age to start vaccines (healthy puppies)

    6 to 8 weeks

  • Where to give DA2PP / DA2PPL

    SQ right front

  • Where to give leptospirosis vaccine

    SQ - Left front

  • At what age can one start Lepto vaccine?

    12 weeks

  • After the puppy series is complete when is the first annual. booster?

    One year

  • What is an advantage of intra nasal (IN) Bordatella vaccine

    Works faster

  • When does one start the Rabies vaccine?

    12 weeks of age

  • What age is first heartworm test?

    7 months

  • What is the primary heartworm preventative used at NSAL?

    Heartgard/Nexgard Plus

  • How old and how big must a puppy be to receive NexgardPlus?

    8 weeks

    4 lbs

  • How often are kitten vaccines given

    Every three weeks

  • What parasiticides are routinely given with each vaccine?

    Drontal


    Pyrantel

  • What kind of vaccine can be given to a pregnant queen or a nursing queen?

    Killed vaccine

  • When are kittens tested for FELV?

    When they are admited and again at three months

  • At what age can you test for FIV?

    6 months

  • What flea preventatives are used in kittens?

    Nexgard combo

    Frontline

    Revolution

  • Where is the FVRCP vaccine given?

    Rt front

  • On average how many dogs and cats reside at NSAL?

    250

  • When is the busiest adoption days?

    Weekends

  • What does it mean to be a “no kill” shelter as opposed to open admission?

    No kill - 90% or greater live release rate.  But will only accept new admissions if there is room.


    Open admission - they will euthanize pets to make room for new arrivals

  • When dealing with the rescue animal, it is impossible to get a complete history. The pet does not come with a previous owner. But there are some things you can and should ask. What are they?

    Where did the pet come from?

    How long has it been at the shelter?

    Did he come alone or with other animals?

    Others

  • How much before an anesthetic/surgical procedure must the pet be examined by a licensed veterinarian?

    24 hrs

  • At what age is geriatric test testing (CBC/SMA) required?

    7 years

  • What is the card color that indicates a dog or cat is not ready to be adopted out?

    Yellow

  • What anabiotic is used for feline URD?

    Doxycycline

  • What is the go to antibiotic for kennel cough and why is it chosen?

    Doxycycline.  Bacteriostatic, penetrates lungs and good activity against Mycoplasma and Bordatella

  • What topical antibiotics are used for conjunctivitis associated with URD?

    Tobramycin, erythromycin and Terramycin

  • Will nexgard combo or revolution get ear mites?

    Yes - But they are off label

  • What drugs are used to treat coccidia?

    Ponazuril and Albon (Sulfadimethoxine)

  • What drugs are used to treat Giardia?

    Panacur and mettronidazole

  • When does one move a diarrhea case to Med Hold

    Liquid diarrhea, bloody, diarrhea, concomitant signs like anorexia

  • When is the Parvo virus snap test used?
    Describe the item or answer the question so that site visitors who are interested get more information. You can emphasize this text with bullets, italics or bold, and add links.
  • Bloody diarrhea plus anorexia

    Bloody diarrhea plus anorexia

  • What is environmental dermatitis?

    Incidental alopecia of no concern

  • Are human OTC urine tests accurate for dogs in detecting THC (cannibinoids?

    No

  • In this study how was canniboid definitively diagnosed?

    Blood test at reference lab


    validated method of liquid chromatography–tandem mass spectrometry

  • What are clinical signs of cannabinoid toxicity?

    ataxia (35 dogs), urinary incontinence, decreased mentation, and hyperesthesia


    abnormal menace, pupillary light, and withdrawal reflexes.

  • What is the problem with definitive blood test for THC or TBD?

    Take too long to get results


    Cost

    From ChatGPT

    $140–$300 range for the laboratory test itself, depending on whether you want simple detection or quantitative levels.

  • Do you need laboratory confirmation of THC or TBD to treat suspected toxicosis?

    No

    You treat the clinical signs symptomatically, not with an antidote

  • What dog breeds are prone to Demodex?

    shar-peis

    pit bulls

    Boston terriers

    English bulldogs

    French bulldogs

    boxers

    miniature pinschers

    Great Danes

    terriers

    pugs

  • Name risk factors for adult onset Demodecosis

    chronic severe disease states

    neoplasia

    long-term glucocorticoid administration chemotherapy

  • What demodex species affects cats and is it contagious?

    D. gatoi

    Yes - contagious

  • What is unique about juvenile local demodecosis?

    Self resolves at. 6 months Eleanor

  • What demodex species tends to be pruritic?

     Demodex injai

  • In what situations do we find demodex cati?

    systemic illness (eg, diabetes mellitus)


    long-term administration of glucocorticoids and progestins

  • When might one use hair plucking to search for Demodex mites

    Difficult to scrape areas (perioocular, interdigital)


    Greasy skin

  • Why is genetic testing indicated?

    To screen for drug sensitivity to avermectins in breed-sensitive dogs (eg, herding dogs, sight hounds.

  • Why might one insert a nasogastric tube?

    administer a commercial liquid diet during the first 24 hours postoperatively

  • How does the rate of intestinal dehiscence compare between intestinal anastamosis vs enterotomy?

    6x greater

  • What are negative prognostic factors for intestinal dehiscence?

    age


    ASA score of >3

  • What does an ASA score of three mean?

    severe systemic dosease

  • When treating demodicosis what do you need to be concerned with to avoid treatment failure?

    Opportunistic bacterial or Malassezia infection

  • What you suspect, if treatment for bacterial infection, which normally is effective, fails?

    methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

  • What is the only medication labeled for Demodex?

    Amitraz

  • Name all the drugs effective against Demodex in dogs. Give generic name and common name.

    Fluralaner (Bravecto)


    Afoxolaner (nexgard)


    Afoxolaner + milbemycin (Nexgard Plus)


    Sarolaner (Simparica)


    Lotilaner (Credelio)


    Ivermectin (Heartgard)


    Milbemycin (Interceptor)


    Moxidectin/imidacloprid (Advantage multi)


    Doramectin (dectomax)

  • What needs to be checked on dogs using some or all of these products?

    Heartworm status


    Multidrug sensitivity gene (MDR1 gene, also known as ABCB1 gene)

  • What is the topical drug used to treat ear mites in cats mentioned in the article?

    milbemycin oxime (0.1% milbemycin oxime) (Milbemite)

  • What is the treatment of choice for generalized feline Demodex and how is it administered?

    Lime sulfur (topical leave-on agent) administered once or twice weekly for 6 weeks; 

    Application should be in a well-ventilated area, and cats should be kept warm.

  • What is a P-glycoprotein inhibitor?

    A drug or chemical that blocks or reduces the activity of P-glycoprotein, a membrane transport protein that normally pumps certain drugs and other substances out of cells.


    P-gp is particularly important at the blood-brain barrier, intestinal wall, liver, and kidneys. It acts like a drug efflux pump.


    When P-gp is inhibited:

    Less drug is pumped out → more drug remains inside the cell → drug concentrations can increase.


  • Name some P-glycoprotein inhibitors that are used in veterinary dermatology?

    erythromycin, itraconazole, ketoconazole, cyclosporine, and tacrolimus

  • What type of drug should be avoided with Demodex?

    Immune suppressive agents

    glucocorticoids

  • With severe demodicosis what can happen with initial treatment (and massive kill of many mites)?

    peripheral edema; 

    systemic miticidal drugs can cause massive mite kills and obstruction of lymphatics.

  • In dogs, how long to continue treatment?

    At least 2, preferably 3, consecutive skin scrapings are negative at 1-month intervals.

  • Describe how did the author treat anal sacculitis

    Emptied the anal sacs


    Flushed anal sacs with physiologic saline


    packed anal gland with antibiotic/steroid otic preparation.


    Repeat every two weeks

  • What sedatives and analgesics did the author use?

    butorphanol and dexmedetomidine

  • In what situations might you use systemic antibiotics when dealing with an anal gland issue?

    Anal sac abscessation, particularly cellulitis extending into surrounding tissues


    Rupture with significant surrounding cellulitis


    Marked tissue inflammation extending beyond the sac


    Fever, lethargy, or other systemic signs


    Immunocompromise or other circumstances that make local treatment less likely to succeed


  • What nutritional recommendations would you make for recurrent anal sacculitis?

    Add fibre to diet


    Weight reduction diet if dog is over weight?



  • What can be done at home to benefit a dog with anal gland issues?

    Weight loss (if dog is overweight)


    Keep the perianal hairs clipped short


    Short, five minute warm soaks help. Place the dog butt in a bathtub of lukewarm water and have the dog sit.


    Moderate exercise